Paradox Brown’s explanation of paternal spiritual lineage (1) has tied up a lot of loose ends for me and continues to do so. I will briefly explain paternal spiritual lineage for those not familiar with the idea. A child’s genes come half and half from the father and mother. However a child’s spirit is inherited solely from the father. We have inherited the spirit of Adam handed down through our fathers since mankind was created. Paternal spiritual lineage makes a lot of things clear including how we inherit sin nature and how Jesus didn’t. The more I ponder paternal spiritual lineage the more I keep seeing connections that are made clear by it. Recently I have been thinking. In modern Jewish tradition a person is Jewish if his mother was Jewish. A person’s spirit comes through the father, so why is Jewish identity traced through the mother. The bible clearly indicates that this was not always the case. In Genesis Joseph was married to a non-Jewish woman, and his children were considered Jewish. Ruth, a gentile mother was an ancestor of David, Solomon and Jesus. Yet all the descendants of Ruth and Boaz are clearly considered to be Jews. When and why did this change? After doing some digging I found that matrilineal descent seems to have came about in the late second and third century AD. (2) This time frame automatically sends up a red flag because at this time the Jews had been kicked out of Palestine by the Romans. Most had went back to Babylon where there had been a large Jewish community ever since the Babylonian Captivity. Judaism was degenerating into occultism. The Mishna and the Talmud were being written in Babylon at this time. That’s why it’s called the Babylonian Talmud, it was written in Babylon by the Rabbis there. (3) The Mishna was written down first then the Talmud developed out of the Mishna. The Talmud is a very blasphemous book heavily influenced by the occultism rampant in Babylon at the time. (4) Doing some more digging I found that the Mishna was the basis for the shift from patrilineal to matrilineal descent. (5) Judaism begins to be influenced by the occult and right away the policy shifts from patrilineal to matrilineal descent. Are the two events related? I think they are.
Originally the Jews descended from Adam then from Noah like all of us. Noah was said to be ‘pure in his generation’. (6) This statement is thought by many to mean that Noah was uncorrupted by interbreeding by fallen angels or their nephilim offspring. The spirit being inherited from the father, a nephilim would carry the spirit of his fallen angel father not the spirit of Adam. Any children sired by a nephilim would inherit that same fallen angel spirit and right on down the line. Noah was pure and had the spirit of Adam. I think it is likely that this is why Hebrew lineages were tracked so carefully and written down in such detail in the old testament. It was to be sure the spirit being handed down was the spirit of Adam and not the spirit of rebellion. Another interesting detail in the bible suggests this. When the Israelites were taking control of Canaan, after they had conquered a Canaanite city they were allowed to keep the young girls alive but the men and young boys they were to kill. (7) Perhaps because a young boy carrying a nephilim spirit could grow up and pass it down to any children that he may sire, however this would not be a problem with a young girl because the spirit is inherited from the father. The bible doesn’t say this is the case but there must have been a reason for it and this one makes sense.
Now under matrilineal descent the Jewish identity is traced through the mother and the father could be anyone and the child would still be considered Jewish. A father carrying a nephilim spirit could now sire Jewish children and there could begin to be Jews who had the spirit of rebellion instead of the spirit of Adam. If these people became numerous and got into positions of authority it would have disastrous effects. Is this why Judaism began to get horribly corrupt starting in the third century AD? Is this why the basis for the blasphemous Talmud began to be written at this time? In this same time period we see Jewish mysticism begin to develop. This early Jewish mysticism would later develop into Kabbalah. (8) Kabbalah is pure occultism. (9) Is it a coincidence that it’s beginnings coincide with the shift to matrilineal descent? This is all just speculation. Anyone feel free to debunk it.
- Genesis 6:9
- Numbers 31:15-18, Deuteronomy 20:13’14